Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 [email protected]
www.allen.ac.in
NURTURE COURSE
(FOR X to XI MOVING STUDENTS)
ASAT
(ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test)
ALLEN
INSTRUCTIONS ()
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
/; <+ 5 :,
Things NOT ALLOWED in EXAM HALL : Blank Paper, clipboard, log table, slide rule, calculator, camera, mobile and any electronic or
electrical gadget. If you are carrying any of these then keep them at a place specified by invigilator at your own risk
: ] ] ] :] ] ] ]
} ,
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of
Booklet until the invigilator instructs to do so.
2. Fill your Form No. in the space provided on the top of this page.
3. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a
machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have to
mark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as per
your answer choice, by using black & blue ball point pen.
4. Total Questions to be Attempted 80. Part-I : 20 Questions
& Part-II : 60 Questions.
5. After breaking the Question Paper seal, check the following :
a. There are 24 pages in the booklet containing question
no. 1 to 100 under 2 Parts i.e. Part-I & Part-II.
b. Part-I contains total 20 questions of IQ (Mental Ability).
c. Part-II contains total 80 questions under 4 sections
which are-Section (A) : Physics, Section (B): Chemistry,
Section (C): Mathematics* & Section (D): Biology*.
*Important : *For Engineering Stream attampt Only
Section-A (Physics), Section-B (Chemistry) &
Section-C (Mathemataics).
*For Medical Stream attampt Only Section-A (Physics),
Section-B (Chemistry) & Section-D (Biology).
6. Marking Scheme :
a. If darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 4 Marks.
b. If no bubble is darkened in any question: No Mark.
c. Only for part - II : If darkened bubble is WRONG answer:
–1 Mark (Minus One Mark).
7. Think wisely before darkening bubble as there is negative
marking for wrong answer.
8. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others
then your ORS will be cancelled.
9. Do not put any stain on ORS and hand it over back properly
to the invigilator.
1. =
}
2.
3. =] , ;=& ;; = (ORS)
ORS
4. 80 -I : 20 -II : 60 .
5. :
a. 24 [; 1 100 2 ] -I
-II
b. -I 20 IQ ( ;)
c. -II 80 4 [ (A) : ,
(B): , (C): * [ (D) : *
* : * [ (A) : ,
(B) : [ (C):
* : * [ (A) : ,
(B) : [ (D) : *
6. ; :
a. : 4
b. :
c. [- II , :
–1 ( ,).
7. ]
8. , ORS
9. ORS /
ALLEN
1/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
PART - I
IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
[ 20 (1), (2), (3) (4) ,
1. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
(1) 28 (2) 32
(3) 36 (4) 40
2. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:
(1) Wednesday (2) Saturday
(3) Tuesday (4) Thursday
3. Which one will replace the question mark ?
(1) 25 (2) 37
(3) 41 (4) 47
4. How many points will be on the face opposite
to the face which contains 2 points?
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 6
1. = [;
(1) 28 (2) 32
(3) 36 (4) 40
2. 61 ] :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
3. ,[;
(1) 25 (2) 37
(3) 41 (4) 47
4. 2
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 6
ALLEN
2/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
5. In the following question, two statements are
given and these statements are followed by two
conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have
to take the given two statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some ants are parrots.
All the parrots are apples.
Conclusions:
1. All the apples are parrots.
2. Some ants are apples.
(1) Only (1) conclusion follows
(2) Only (2) conclusion follows
(3) Either (1) or (2) follows
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
6. In a row of boys, if A who is 10
th
from the left
and B who is 9
th
from the right interchange their
positions, A becomes 15
th
from the left. How
many boys are there in the row ?
(1) 23 (2) 31
(3) 27 (4) 28
7. At 3:40, the hour hand and the minute hand of
a clock form an angle of:
(1) 120° (2) 125° (3) 130° (4) 135°
8. The following question consists of two sets of
figures. Figures A, B, C and D constitute the
Problem figure while figures 1, 2, 3 & 4 constitute
the Answer figure. There is a definite relationship
between figures A and B. Establish a similar
relationship between figures C and D by selecting
a suitable figure from the Answer figure that would
replace the question mark (?) in fig. (D). Select a
suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).
Problem Figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer Figures
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5. ± (1)
(2)
:; ;%
]
± ;
:
ants, parrots
parrots, apples
:
1. apples, parrots
2. ants, apples
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (1) (2)
(4) (1) (2)
6. ] ; A 10
B 9
A 15
(1) 23 (2) 31 (3) 27 (4) 28
7. ? ?
3 40
(1) 120° (2) 125° (3) 130° (4) 135°
8. = A, B,
C D = 1, 2, 3 4 =
= A B /; ,=
C D /;
= ,=
= (D) = (?)
=
(A) (B) (C) (D)
=
(1) (2) (3) (4)
ALLEN
3/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
9. Five girls are sitting on a bench to be
photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and
to the right of Bindu. Mary is to the right of
Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
Who is sitting immediate right to Reeta ?
(1) Bindu (2) Rani
(3) Mary (4) Seema
10. At what time between 4 and 5 o'clock will the
hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
(1) 45 min. past 4
(2) 40 min. past 4
(3)
4
50
11
min. past 4
(4)
6
54
11
min. past 4
11. Study the following information and answer the
question given below it.
A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D
and E, each having a different weight.
I. A weighs twice as much as B.
II. B weighs four-and-a-half times as much as C.
III. C weighs half as much as E.
IV. D weighs three fourth of E.
V. E weighs less than A but more than C.
E is lighter in weight than which of the other
two articles ?
(1) A, B (2) D, C
(3) A, C (4) D, B
12. A cuboid shaped wooden block has 4cm
length, 3cm breadth and 5cm height.
Two side measuring 5×4 are colured red
Two side measuring 4×3 are colured blue
Two side measuring 5×3 are colured green
Block is divided into small cubes of side 1 cm
each.
How many cubes will have only one face
coloured ?
(1) 12 (2) 28
(3) 22 (4) 16
9. ,
] ]
] /;
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
10. 4 5 /; ; , ?
(1) 4 45
(2) 4 40
(3) 4
4
50
11
(4) 4
6
54
11
11. <+;
A, B, C, D
E
I. A B
II. B C <+
III. C E
IV. D E
V. E A C
; E
(1) A, B (2) D, C
(3) A, C (4) D, B
12. ?
4cm, 3cm 5cm
5×4
4×3
5×3
?
1 cm
? ] ,
(1) 12 (2) 28
(3) 22 (4) 16
ALLEN
4/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
13. Find the next figure which will continue the
given figure series.
Question figure
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
14. Select the answer figure in which the question
figure is embedded.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
15. If ‘x’ means ‘+’, ‘y’ means ‘–’, ‘z’ means ‘×’
and ‘u’ means
''
then what is the value of
24x18y8z24u12
(1) 22 (2) 24
(3) 26 (4) 30
13. =
=
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
14. =
=
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
15. ‘x’ ‘+’, ‘y’ ‘–’, ‘z’
‘×’ ‘u’
''
]
24x18y8z24u12
(1) 22 (2) 24
(3) 26 (4) 30
ALLEN
5/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
16. In the following question two statements are
given and these statements are followed by two
conclusions, numbered (1) and (2). You have
to take the given two statements to be true even
if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer :
Statements : All papers are files.
Some files are pens.
Conclusions : 1. No paper is a pen.
2. Some pens are papers.
(1) If only (1) conclusion follows
(2) If only (2) conclusion follows
(3) If either (1) or (2) follows
(4) If neither (1) nor (2) follows
17. If BOOK is coded as DMQI then how will you
code PAPER?
(1) NCNGT (2) NYRCT
(3) NYNCP (4) RYRCT
18. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family
consisting of four adults and three children.
There are four females and 3 male members
in the family two of whom, F and G are girls.
A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an
engineer married to one of the brothers and
has two children. if B is married to D and G is
their child. Who is C ?
(1) A’s son (2) E’s daughter
(3) F’s father (4) G’s brother
19. Neelam, who is Deepak’s daughter, says to
Deepika, Your mother Rekha is the younger
sister of my father who is the third child of
Ramlal.” How is Ramlal related to Deepika ?
(1) Uncle
(2) Father
(3) Maternal Grandfather
(4) Father-in-law
20. If book is called watch, watch is called bag,
bag is called dictionary and dictionary is called
window, which is used to carry the books?
(1) Dictionary (2) Bag
(3) Book (4) Watch
16. ± (1)
(2)
:; ;%
]
± ;
:
: papers, files
files, pens
: 1. paper, pen
2. pens, papers
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) ; (1) (2)
(4) (1) (2)
17. BOOK + DMQI ] PAPER
(1) NCNGT (2) NYRCT
(3) NYNCP (4) RYRCT
18. A, B, C, D, E, F G
;
; ] F G
A D A E
,
; B D G
C
(1) A = (2) E
(3) F (4) G
19. ] ] ]
]
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
20. book watch ] watch bag
] bag dictionary
dictionary window ] books
(1) Dictionary (2) Bag
(3) Book (4) Watch
ALLEN
6/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
PART-II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
[ 20 (1), (2), (3) (4) ,
21. A metallic sphere has a charge of 10µC. A unit
negative charge is brought from (A) to (B), both
100 cm away from the sphere but (A) being
east of it while (B) being on west. The net work
done on the unit negative charge is
(1) Zero (2) 2/10 joules
(3) –2/10 joules (4) –1/10 joules
22. In the figure given below, the magnetic field
strength at point A, B and C in the increasing
order will be
I
A
B
C
(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, A
(3) A, C, B (4) B, A, C
23. Two bodies A and B of mass 1 kg and 2 kg,
respectively, are dropped near the earth's
surface. Let the acceleration of A and B be
a
1
and a
2
, respectively, then
(1) a
1
= a
2
(2) a
1
< a
2
(3) a
1
> a
2
(4) a
1
a
2
24. A long conducting wire AH is moved over a
conducting triangular wire CDE with a constant
velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
B
directed
into the plane of paper. Both wires AH and
CDE are kept in contact with each other.
Choose the correct statement below -
F
G
A
H
v
C
E
D
B
21. / 10µC ,
(A) (B)
100 cm (A)
(B)
:-
(1) ; (2) 2/10
(3) –2/10 (4) –1/10
22. = A, B C ; {=
<+ :-
I
A
B
C
(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, A
(3) A, C, B (4) B, A, C
23. 1kg 2kg% A
B
A B% a
1
a
2
:-
(1) a
1
= a
2
(2) a
1
< a
2
(3) a
1
> a
2
(4) a
1
a
2
24. AH ,
CDE
; {=
B
v
AH CDE ,
F
G
A
H
v
C
E
D
B
ALLEN
7/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
(1) A clockwise induced current will flow in
closed loop.
(2) An anticlockwise induced current will flow
in closed loop.
(3) No induced current will flow in closed loop.
(4) None of these
25. Fuse wire is a wire of
(1) high resistance and high melting point
(2) high resistance and low melting point
(3) low resistance and low melting point
(4) low resistance and hight melting point
26. A charged particle of mass m and charge q
enters a magnetic field B with a velocity v at
an angle with B. Choose the incorrect
statement.
(1) The kinetic energy of the particle will not
change if 0°.
(2) The momentum of the particle will not
change if 0°.
(3) The particle moves in a circle of radius mv/
qB if = 90°.
(4) The frequency of circular motion of particle
is independent of the speed of the particle if
= 90°.
27. In human eye, the focusing is done by :
(1) Change in the refractive index of the eye
fluids
(2) Change in the convexity of the lens surface
(3) To and fro movement of the retina
(4) To and fro movement of the eye lens
28. Study the (v-t) graph given here plotted for a
particle of mass 50 g. In which period will it be
having the maximum force?
2
4
6
8
10
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
P
Q
R
Time in seconds
V
e
l
o
c
i
t
y
i
n
m
/
s
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) Between Q and R8
(1) , /
(2) , /
(3) /
(4)
25. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
26. m q , ,
; {= B ] B v
(1) 0°
(2) 0°
(3) = 90° mv/qB
(4) = 90°;
27. = :
(1) }
(2) }
(3)
(4) =
28. 50g ,, (v-t)
/;; ;
?
2
4
6
8
10
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
P
Q
R
Time in seconds
V
e
l
o
c
i
t
y
i
n
m
/
s
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) Q R8/;
ALLEN
8/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
29. Eddy currents in the core of transformer can be
reduced
(1) by increasing the number of turns in
secondary coil.
(2) by taking laminated core.
(3) by making step down tranformer.
(4) by using a weak A.C. at high potential.
30. The resultant resistance of n resistance wires
(each of r ohm) is R, when they are connected
in parallel. When these n resistances are
connected in series, the resultant resistance will
be
(1)
R
n
(2)
2
R
n
(3) nR (4) n
2
R
31. A beam consisting of protons and electrons
moving at the same speed goes through a thin
region in which there is a magnetic field
perpendicular to the beam. The protons and the
electrons
(1) will go undeviated.
(2) will be deviated by the same angle and will
not separate.
(3) will be deviated by different angles and hence
separate.
(4) will be deviated by the same angle but will
separate.
32. A coil and a magnet are moved in the same
direction and with same speed. What will
happen?
(1) The coil will experience a force.
(2) The magnet will experience a force.
(3) Electric current will be induced in the coil.
(4) Electric current will not be induced in the
coil.
33. The magnetic field produced due to a current
carrying circular wire at its centre is
(1) at 45º to the plane of the wire.
(2) at 60º to the plane of the wire.
(3) in the plane of the wire.
(4) perpendicular to the plane of the wire.
29. /
(1) ?[;<+
(2) ;
(3)
(4) , { /
30. r n
R
n
:-
(1)
R
n
(2)
2
R
n
(3) nR (4) n
2
R
31.
, ,
; {=
(1) ,
(2)
(3) %
(4)
32. ,
?
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) /
(4) /
33. /
; {=
(1) 45º
(2) 60º
(3)
(4)
ALLEN
9/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
34. Assuming that the earth is a sphere of uniform
mass density, what is the percentage decrease in
the weight of a body when taken to the end of a
tunnel 32 km below the surface of the earth ?
(Radius of earth = 6400 km)
(1) 0.25% (2) 0.5%
(3) 0.75% (4) 1%
35. A ray of light falls on a plane mirror A kept at
an angle 90° to mirror B as shown in the figure.
The angle N is
30°
x
A
y
N
B
90°
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
36. A proton, a deuteron and -particle with the
same K.E. enter a region of uniform magnetic
field B moving at right angles to the field. What
is the ratio of the radii of their circular paths?
(1) 1 :
2
: 1 (2) 1 :
2
:
2
(3)
2
: 1 : 1 (4)
2
:
2
: 1
37. +2C, & +6C charges are repelling each other
with a force of 12 N. If each charge is given
–2C of charge, then the value of force will be
(1) 4N (attractive) (2) 4N (repulsive)
(3) 8N (repulsive) (4) Zero
38. A bullet moving with a velocity of 50
2
ms
–1
is fired into a target which it penetrates to the
extent of d metre. If this bullet is fired into a
target of
d
2
metre thickness with the same
velocity, it will come out of this target with a
velocity of [Assume that resistance to motion
is similar and uniform in both the cases]
(1) 40
2
ms
–1
(2) 25
2
ms
–1
(3) 50 ms
–1
(4) 5.0
3
ms
–1
34. , ? ,
, 32 km
,
= 6400 km)
(1) 0.25% (2) 0.5%
(3) 0.75% (4) 1%
35. , , A
B 90°
N :-
30°
x
A
y
N
B
90°
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90°
36. ,] ,
- ,; {= B {=
:-
(1) 1 :
2
: 1 (2) 1 :
2
:
2
(3)
2
: 1 : 1 (4)
2
:
2
: 1
37. +2C, +6C , 12 N
;
–2C] :-
(1) 4N ) (2) 4N )
(3) 8N ) (4) ;
38. 50
2
ms
–1
,{;
] d /
;
d
2
{;
;{;
(
, ,) :-
(1) 40
2
ms
–1
(2) 25
2
ms
–1
(3) 50 ms
–1
(4) 5.0
3
ms
–1
ALLEN
10/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
[ 20 (1), (2), (3) (4) ,
41. A compound P is taken in a flat bottomed flask
as shown in figure. Dilute hydrochloric acid is
added drop by drop. A gas Q is evolved which
is then passed in a test tube containing R.
A solid precipitate S is formed. R is frequently
used in white washing. During white washing
a layer of R is applied on the wall and it reacts
with gas Q (present in air) to produce white
shiny layer of S on the wall. P, Q, R and S
respectively are.
HCl
P
R
Q (g)
P Q R S
(1) Na
2
SO
4
SO
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaSO
4
(2) Na
2
SO
3
O
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaO
(3) Na
2
CO
3
O
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaCO
3
(4) Na
2
CO
3
CO
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaCO
3
39. In the formation of a rainbow, light from the sun
on water droplets undergoes :
(1) dispersion only
(2) only total internal reflection
(3) dispersion and total internal reflection
(4) none of these
40. A good fuel is one which possesses
(1) moderate ignition temperature
(2) high ignition temperature
(3) high calorific value
(4) both (1) and (3)
39.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
40. ±/
(1) /;
(2)
(3)
(4) (1) (3)
41. , ; P
=
, Q
, R
] , R
] R
R ,
] Q )
] S
P, Q, R S %
HCl
P
R
Q (g)
P Q R S
(1) Na
2
SO
4
SO
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaSO
4
(2) Na
2
SO
3
O
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaO
(3) Na
2
CO
3
O
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaCO
3
(4) Na
2
CO
3
CO
2
Ca(OH)
2
CaCO
3
ALLEN
11/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
42. The long form of periodic table consists of
(1) seven periods and eight groups.
(2) seven periods and eighteen groups.
(3) eight periods and eighteen groups.
(4) eighteen periods and eight groups.
43. According to J.J. Thomson's atomic model,
where are -negative charges of an atom
embedded in?
(1) A lump of positive charge
(2) A lump of small atoms
(3) A lump of neutrons
(4) The nucleus
44. Solubility of a substance is its maximum
amount that can be dissolved in a specified
amount of solvent. It depends upon
(i) Nature of solute (ii) Nature of solvent
(iii) Temperature (iv) Pressure
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
45. Study the table carefully and select the
appropriate options.
Sample Physical
State [Solid]
Conductor
of electricity
Ductility
(P)
× ×
(Q)
(R)
×
(S) × × ×
P Q R S
(1) Aluminium
C
Graphite
Bromine Sodium
(2) Phosphorus Nitrogen Magnesium Aluminium
(3) Iron Zinc Tin Fluorine
(4) Sulphur Copper Potassium Bromine
46. On mixing two solution we get an insoluble salt.
The two solution can be
(1) KCl + NaNO
3
(2) Na
2
SO
4
+ KCl
(3) AgNO
3
+ NaCl (4) NaCl + H
2
SO
4
42. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
43. ; ] ,
/ (embedded) ?
(1) < (lump)
(2) <
(3) <
(4)
44. ] ]
,;
;
(i) ; (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (ii) (iv)
(3) (i), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)
45.
,
)
(P)
× ×
(Q)
(R)
×
(S) × × ×
P Q R S
(1)
C
C
(2)
(3)
(4)
46. ,
(1) KCl + NaNO
3
(2) Na
2
SO
4
+ KCl
(3) AgNO
3
+ NaCl (4) NaCl + H
2
SO
4
ALLEN
12/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
47. The given figure demonstrates _____.
Cathode rays
Object
Shadow
AnodeCathode
Gas at low pressure
To vacuum
(1) Cathode rays do not consist of material
particles.
(2) Cathode rays consist of negatively charged
particles.
(3) Cathode rays produce fluorescence.
(4) Cathode rays travel in straight line.
48. Electromagnetic separation is employed for the
concentration of these ores in which
(1) the ore is magnetic
(2) the gangue is magnetic
(3) both the ore and the gangue are magnetic
(4) either the ore or the gangue is magnetic
49. How does the colour change when the gases
produced after thermal decomposition of
ferrous sulphate come in contact with an
acidified solution of potassium dichromate?
(1) Green to orange (2) Orange to green
(3) Blue to green (4) Red to colourless
50. The nature of reactions of some metals with
aluminium sulphate, copper sulphate, iron
sulphate, and mercuric nitrate are listed in the
given table.
Aluminium
sulphate
Coper
sulphate
Iron
Sulphate
Mercuric
nitrate
W No reaction Displacement No reaction Displacement
X Displacement Displacement Displacement Displacement
Y No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
Z No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Metal
Nature of reaction
Which metal in the given table is the most
reactive?
(1) W (2) X
(3) Y (4) Z
51. Which of the following increases along the period?
(1) Number of valence electrons
(2) Atomic size
(3) Electropositive character
(4) All of these
47. = _____.
Cathode rays
Object
Shadow
AnodeCathode
Gas at low pressure
To vacuum
(1)
(2)
(3) +
(4) +
48. ; ,
, ]
(1) ;
(2) (gangue) ;
(3)] ;
(4) ;] ;
49. ;
;
] ]
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
50. / ,] ]
W
X
Y
Z
/
(1) W (2) X
(3) Y (4) Z
51. <+?
(1) [;
(2) ;
(3) /
(4)
ALLEN
13/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
52. Which among the following is not a postulate
of Dalton’s atomic theory ?
(1) Atom can neither be created nor destroyed.
(2) Atoms of different elements have different
sizes, masses and chemical properties.
(3) Atoms of same elements can combine in
only one ratio to produce more than one
compound.
(4) Atoms are very tiny particles which cannot
be divided further.
53. Froth floatation method is used for the
concentration of
(1) oxide ores (2) sulphide ores
(3) sulphate ores (4) halide ores
54. Match the column
(A) Change in state (i)
N
2
+ O
2
2NO
(endothermic reaction)
(B) Change in colour (ii)
Pb(NO
3
)
2
+ KI
PbI
2
+ KNO
3
(C) Reverse of
sublimation
(iii) Deposition of
ammonium chloride
(D) Change in
temperature
(iv) Magnesium turning to
magnesium oxide.
Column-I Column-II
(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
55. Select the pair of isobars from the following
species
37 35 37 36 38
17 17 18 18 19
A,B,C,D,E
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) C and E (4) C and D
56. The following reaction is an example of a
4NH
3
+ 5O
2
4NO + 6H
2
O
(i) Displacement reaction
(ii) Combination reaction
(iii) Redox reaction
(iv) Neutralisation reaction
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) Only (iii)
52. ] ,
?
(1)
(2) ]
(3) ] , ; ;
,] ,
(4) ]
53. , >
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
54. ,
(A) (i)
N
2
+ O
2
2NO
(
)
(B)
(ii)
Pb(NO
3
)
2
+ KI
PbI
2
+ KNO
3
(C)
(iii)
(D)
(iv)
]
-I
-II
(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
55. ;,
37 35 37 36 38
17 17 18 18 19
A,B,C,D,E
(1) A B (2) A C
(3) C E (4) C D
56.
4NH
3
+ 5O
2
4NO + 6H
2
O
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1) (i) (iv) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (4) (iii)
ALLEN
14/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
57. Identify substances X, Y and Z respectively on
the basis of given properties.
Substance X : It is obtained from ammonia soda
process. Its anhydrous form is known as soda
ash.
Substance Y : It is pentahydrated salt. It is used
in testing the presence of moisture.
Substance Z : Dihydrated salt of calcium
sulphate gives on heating at 373 K substance Z.
(1) CaSO
4
.2H
2
O, NaHCO
3
, Na
2
CO
3
(2) Na
2
CO
3
, CuSO
4
.5H
2
O, (CaSO
4
)
2
.H
2
O
(3) Na
2
CO
3
, NaHCO
3
, CaSO
4
.2H
2
O
(4) Na
2
CO
3
.10H
2
O, CuSO
4
.5H
2
O, (CaSO
4
)
2
.H
2
O
58. Which one of the following process inolves a
chemical reaction?
(1) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a
gas cylinder
(2) Liquefaction of air
(3) Keeping petrol in a china dish in the open
(4) Heating copper wire in presence of air at
high temperature.
59. Which of the following elements will form acidic
oxide?
(1) Sodium (2) Magnesium
(3) Aluminium (4) Sulphur
60. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Covalent compounds generally have low
melting and boiling points.
(2) CO
2
consists only of single bonds.
(3) Generally when two non metals combine,
it forms covalent bond.
(4) Carbon shares electrons in its compounds
to achieve stability because it can't loose
nor accept four electrons.
57. % X, Y Z
,
X : }
; :] ,
Y : ]
,
Z :
373 K Z
(1) CaSO
4
.2H
2
O, NaHCO
3
, Na
2
CO
3
(2) Na
2
CO
3
, CuSO
4
.5H
2
O, (CaSO
4
)
2
.H
2
O
(3) Na
2
CO
3
, NaHCO
3
, CaSO
4
.2H
2
O
(4) Na
2
CO
3
.10H
2
O, CuSO
4
.5H
2
O, (CaSO
4
)
2
.H
2
O
58. ,
?
(1)
(2)
(3) [
(4)
59. ; ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
60. ?
(1) ;
(2) CO
2
,
(3) % /
(4) ,] ;
;
+
ALLEN
15/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS
FOR ADMISSION IN ENGINEERING STREAM ()
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
[ 20 (1), (2), (3) (4) ,
Attempt any one of the section C or D
Section C or D , section
61. D is the mid point of side AB of the triangle
ABC, E is mid point of CD and F is mid point of
AE. Area of AFD =
(1) 2 × area (ABC)
(2) 1/8 × area ( ABC)
(3) 1/2 × area ( ABC)
(4) 1/4 × area ( ABC)
62. The 5
th
and 13
th
term of an A.P. are 5 and
–3 respectively. The first term of the A.P. is
(1) 1 (2) 9
(3) –15 (4) 2
63. Two sides of a triangle are 7 and 10 units. Which
of the following length can be the length of the
third side?
(1) 19 cm (2) 17 cm
(3) 13 cm (4) 3 cm
64. In figure
ABC ,
B = 90°, BD
AC, if
AB = 10 cm. BC = 20 cm. Find BD
B
C
D
A
(1)
25
cm (2)
45
cm
(3)
35
cm (4)
85
cm
65. If the mean of four observations is 20 and when
a constant c is added to each observation, the
mean becomes 22. The value of c is
(1) – 2 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6
61. ABC AB /; D ]
CD /; E AE /; F
{ AFD =
(1) 2 × (ABC)
(2) 1/8 × ( ABC)
(3) 1/2 × ( ABC)
(4) 1/4 × ( ABC)
62. <+ 5
13
% 5
–3 <+
(1) 1 (2) 9
(3) – 15 (4) 2
63. 7
10
(1) 19 cm (2) 17 cm
(3) 13 cm (4) 3 cm
64. ABC ]
B = 90°, BD
AC,
AB = 10 cm, BC = 20 cm BD
B
C
D
A
(1)
25
cm (2)
45
cm
(3)
35
cm (4)
85
cm
65. /; 20
c /; 22 c
(1) – 2 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6
ALLEN
16/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
66. The areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboid
are 1m
2
, 4m
2
and 9m
2
, then its volume is
(1) 36 m
3
(2) 6 m
3
(3) 216 m
3
(4) Can not be determine
67. The condition that the zeros of the polynomial
lx
2
+ mx + n may be in the ratio 3 : 4 is
(1) 14 n
2
= 49 ml (2) m
2
= 9 nl
(3) 12 m
2
= 49 nl (4) 4 l
2
= 49 ml
68. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the
H.C.F. of these numbers is 37, then the greater
number is
(1) 101 (2) 107
(3) 111 (4) 185
69. In the singapore zoo, there are deers and ducks.
If the heads are counted, they are 180 while the
legs are 448. What will be the number of deers in
the zoo ?
(1) 136 (2) 68
(3) 44 (4) 22
70. Which of following sentence is NOT true
(1) If
is zero of polynomial f (x), then
f () = 0
(2) If f (x) = g (x) × q(x) + r (x), where degree
r (x) < degree g(x).
(3) If
,,
are zeros of f (x) = ax
3
+ bx
2
+
cx + d, then
= –b/a,
= c/a and
= –d/a
(4) None of these
71. The co-ordinates of the point where the line
2(x– 4) = 2y – 7 meet the x – axis is
(1) (1, 0) (2)
1
0,
2
(3)
1
,0
2
(4)
1
,0
2
66. / {
1m
2
, 4m
2
9m
2
]
(1) 36 m
3
(2) 6 m
3
(3) 216 m
3
(4)
67. lx
2
+ mx + n 3 : 4
(1) 14 n
2
= 49 ml (2) m
2
= 9 nl
(3) 12 m
2
= 49 nl (4) 4 l
2
= 49 ml
68. [; 4107 ;[;
37 ] [;
(1) 101 (2) 107
(3) 111 (4) 185
69. ] ;
[; 180 [; 448
[;
(1) 136 (2) 68
(3) 44 (4) 22
70. ;
(1) f (x)
] f () = 0
(2) f (x) = g (x) × q(x) + r (x), ?
r (x) < g(x)
(3) f (x) = ax
3
+ bx
2
+ cx + d
,,
]
= –b/a,
= c/a
= –d/a
(4)
71. ] 2(x– 4) = 2y – 7,
x – ]
(1) (1, 0) (2)
1
0,
2
(3)
1
,0
2
(4)
1
,0
2
ALLEN
17/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
72. If one root of a quadratic equation is
1
43
,
then the quadratic equation can be
(1)
2
x 24x10
(2)
2
x 4x10
(3)
2
x 24x10
(4)
2
x 23x10
73. D, E, F are mid points of BC, AC and AB
respectively. G, H, I, are again mid points of
sides FD, DE, EF respectively, then ar (quad
GHIF) : ar (quad AEDB) =
I
F
E
G
H
B
D
C
A
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 6
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 16
74. Remainder when we divide x
3
+ 3x
2
– 5x + 4
by (x – 1) is
(1) 3 (2) – 3
(3) 0 (4) 4
75. If sec + tan = x, then possible value of
sin :
(1)
11
x+
2x
(2)
11
x–
2x
(3)
2
2
x –1
x +1
(4) Can’t be determined
72. }? ,
1
43
]
}?
(1)
2
x 24x10
(2)
2
x 4x10
(3)
2
x 24x10
(4)
2
x 23x10
73. BC, AC AB /; % D, E,
F FD, DE, EF /; %
G, H, I ] { ( GHIF) :
( AEDB) =
I
F
E
G
H
B
D
C
A
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 6
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 16
74. x
3
+ 3x
2
– 5x + 4 (x – 1)
(1) 3 (2) – 3
(3) 0 (4) 4
75. sec + tan = x ] sin
(1)
11
x+
2x
(2)
11
x–
2x
(3)
2
2
x –1
x +1
(4)
ALLEN
18/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
76. A metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted
and then recast into small cones each of radius
3.5 cm and height 3cm. The number of such
cones is
(1) 63 (2) 126
(3) 21 (4) 130
77. If the lines represented by the system of
equations
3x + y = 1, (2k – 1)x + (k – 1)y = 2k + 1
are parallel then k =
(1) 2 (2) – 2
(3) 1 (4) – 1
78. The mean of x + 2, x, x + 3, x + 4, x + 1 is 20.
Find x.
(1) 3 (2) 12
(3) 18 (4) 1
79. A positive integer is said to be a prime if it is
not divisible by any positive integer other than
itself and one. Let p be a prime number strictly
greater than 3. Then, when p
2
+ 17 is divided
by 12, the remainder is
(1) 6 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 8
80. In figure, DE || BC. If AD = x, BD = x – 2,
AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1, then x =
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
76. 10.5 , ?
3.5 3cm ,
[;
(1) 63 (2) 126
(3) 21 (4) 130
77. ;
3x + y = 1, (2k – 1)x + (k – 1)y = 2k + 1
] k
(1) 2 (2) – 2
(3) 1 (4) – 1
78. x + 2, x, x + 3, x + 4, x + 1 /; 20 ]
x
(1) 3 (2) 12
(3) 18 (4) 1
79. /; ; ;
; ,; /
,; [; p,
3 p
2
+ 17 12
(1) 6 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 8
80. = ] DE || BC ; AD = x, BD = x – 2,
AE = x + 2 EC = x – 1 ] x
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
ALLEN
19/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
SECTION-D : BIOLOGY
FOR ADMISSION IN MEDICAL STREAM ()
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
[ 20 (1), (2), (3) (4) ,
81. In the accompanying diagram of a part of the
human body, the structures belonging to the
central nervous system are labelled as
A
B
C
D
(1) A and C (2) B and C
(3) A and D (4) C and D
82. The pancreatic juice does not contain one of
the following enzymes
(1) trypsin (2) ptyalin
(3) amylase (4) lipase
83. Match the following columns and select the
correct option from the codes given below.
(A) Cattle used for tilling
and carting
(i) Milch breed
(B) Aseel (ii) Broiler
(C) Sahiwal, Red Sindhi (iii) Draught
(D) Milk producing (iv) Indigenous
breed of cattle
(E) Chicken better fed
for obtaining meat
(v) Indigenous
breed of
chicken
Column -I Column - II
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i), (E)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(v), (D)-(iii), (E)-(i)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii), (E)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(v), (D)-(iv), (E)-(i)
84. Which is the correct sequence of parts in
human alimentary canal ?
(1) Mouth stomach small intestine
oesophagus large intestine
(2) Mouth oesophagus stomach large
intestine small intestine
(3) Mouth stomach oesophagus small
intestine large intestine
(4) Mouth oesophagus stomach small
intestine large intestine
81. = ; =
A
B
C
D
(1) A C (2) B C
(3) A D (4) C D
82. ,:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
83. %
(A)
,
(i)
(B)
(ii)
(C)
]
(iii)
(D)
(iv)
(E)
,
(v)
-I
-II
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i), (E)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(v), (D)-(iii), (E)-(i)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii), (E)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(v), (D)-(iv), (E)-(i)
84. = ?
(1) ; = =
(2) ; = =
(3) ; = =
(4) ; = =
ALLEN
20/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
85. Graph depicts the concentration of enzymes
involved in urea synthesis in a developing
tadpole. It indicates a transition from
E
n
z
y
m
e
a
c
t
i
v
i
t
y
%
a
d
u
l
t
l
e
v
e
l
Tadpole.....Adult
(1) Ammonotelism to uricotelism
(2) Ammonotelism to ureotelism
(3) Uricotelism to ureotelism
(4) Ureotelism to uricotelism
86. The picture shows some natural resources.
Which of the following is the major
characteristic of all natural resources?
Sun
Coal
Water
(1) They are parts of the environment that we
do not need or use to live.
(2) They are parts of the environment that are
found underground.
(3) They are parts of the environment that give
us energy.
(4) They are parts of the environment which are
non renewable
87. Which of the following cross would produce a
genotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 in F
1
generation?
(1) AA × AA (2) Aa × Aa
(3) aa × aa (4) Aa × aa
88. If green plant cells are incubated with
O
18
labelled water, which of the following
molecule with become radioactive when the
cells are exposed to light ?
(1) O
2
(2) CO
2
(3) H
2
O (4) Sugar
85. ;
;
:
E
n
z
y
m
e
a
c
t
i
v
i
t
y
%
a
d
u
l
t
l
e
v
e
l
Tadpole.....Adult
(1) ;
(2) ;
(3) ;
(4) ;
86. =
[; ?
Sun
Coal
Water
(1) ]
, ;
(2) ]
(3) ]
(4) ] ;
87. F
1
<+
1 : 2 : 1 ?
(1) AA × AA (2) Aa × Aa
(3) aa × aa (4) Aa × aa
88. O
18
]
?
(1) O
2
(2) CO
2
(3) H
2
O (4) Sugar
ALLEN
21/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
89. Which of the following equations represents
anaerobic respiration in yeast ?
(1) Glucose
cytoplasm
Pyruvate+Energy
cytoplasm
Ethanol + CO
2
+ Energy
(2) Glucose
cytoplasm
Pyruvate+Energy
mitochondria
Lactic acid + Energy
(3) Glucose
mitochondria
Pyruvate+Energy
cytoplasm
Ethanol + CO
2
+ Energy
(4) Glucose
mitochondria
Lactic acid+Energy
cytoplasm
Ethanol + CO
2
+ Energy
90. The hormone 'X' does the following functions
(i) Induces seed dormancy.
(ii) Inhibits seed germination.
(iii) Prepares plants to cope with stress.
(iv) Stimulates closure of stomata
The hormone 'X' should be
(1) ABA (2) ethylene
(3) GA (4) cytokinins
91. Sterilization in males is performed surgically
by
(1) Vasectomy (2) Ligation
(3) Tubectomy (4) Fitting of copper T
92. Which of the following is non nucleated?
(1) Monocyte (2) Lymphocyte
(3) Platelet (4) Neutrophil
93. The given figure illustrates the changes in lung
volume during the process of breathing.
I
II
III
IV
L
u
n
g
v
o
l
u
m
e
The change from II to III indicates the
(1) movement of diaphragm away from the lungs
(2) expansion of the thoracic cavity
(3) movement of air out of the lungs
(4) expansion of ribs
89. ;;
?
(1)
;
+
;
+ CO
2
+
(2)
;
+
+
(3)
+
;
+ CO
2
+
(4)
+
;
+ CO
2
+
90. 'X' :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
'X' :
(1) ABA (2)
(3) GA (4)
91. ; }/;
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
92. ; ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
93. =
:
I
II
III
IV
L
u
n
g
v
o
l
u
m
e
II III :
(1)
(2) ;
(3)
(4)
ALLEN
22/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
94. Tuft of capillaries in Bowman’s capsule is called
(1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) Glomerulus (4) Loop of Henle
95. The diagram below shows two plants of the
same species. Refer to the diagram to answer
the following questions.
X
Z
Y
W
Plant 1
Plant 2
(i) Which arrow indicates a process that would
not lead to sexual reproduction?
(ii) Which arrow represents self pollination ?
(1) (i)-Y, (ii)-Z (2) (i)-Z. (ii)-X
(3) (i)-Y, (ii)-X (4) (i)-X, (ii)-Y
96. Bicuspid valve is present in human heart in
between
(1) right auricle and right ventricle
(2) left auricle and left ventricle
(3) right and left auricle
(4) left auricle and systemic aorta
97. Fruits are not formed in gymnospermous plants
because
(1) they are not pollinated
(2) they are seedless plants
(3) process of fertilisation does not take place
(4) they have no ovary
98. The transpiration in plants will increase
(1) when there is high relative humidity in the
atmosphere
(2) when there is low relative humidity in the
atmosphere
(3) high atmospheric temperature
(4) both (2) and (3)
94.
:
(1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) (4)
95. = ,
, = :
X
Z
Y
W
Plant 1
Plant 2
(i) ,]
?
(ii) ?
(1) (i)-Y, (ii)-Z (2) (i)-Z. (ii)-X
(3) (i)-Y, (ii)-X (4) (i)-X, (ii)-Y
96. ;
:
(1) ;
(2) ;
(3)
(4) ; ,
97. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) ;
98. <+ :
(1)
(2)
(3) ;
(4) (2) (3)
ALLEN
23/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
99. Mumps is a disease caused by
(1) Protozoan (2) Virus
(3) Bacterium (4) Fungus
100. During ventricular systole
(1) oxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood
is pumped into the aorta.
(2) oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta
and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary vein
(3) oxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is
pumped into the pulmonary artery
(4) oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta
and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary artery.
99. :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
100. ; :
(1) ; /
(2)
;
(3) ;
;
(4)
; /
ALLEN
24/24
Sample questions for ASAT : Nurture Course
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
NURTURE COURSE
(X to XI moving Students)
ANSWER KEY
ASAT
ASAT (SAMPLE PAPER)
Que.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An s.
3 2 3 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 3 3 4 1 3 1
Que.
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An s.
1 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 3 4 4 2 3 1 4 3 3 4
Que.
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
An s.
4 2 1 4 4 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 4 2
Que.
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
An s.
2 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 4
Que.
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
An s.
3 2 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 4 4 2 4
ALLEN
